bumperbozo
Member
Here are the instructions for my cylinder leakage tester:

It basically indicates that you can use any test PSI under 100 and looking at the table it appears that the leakage is calculated as the difference between the gauges divided by the test PSI. But I can imagine that if you have a pretty low test PSI, the impact of the tool orifice vs the opening(s) in the cylinder is going to change. Like, a shake straw doesn't restrict your blowing if you're not blowing that hard.
Do the right and left gauges scale linearly for any given amount of ring gap, for instance?
The reason I'm asking is that the leak down test the dealer tech did on the car we are looking at had a different test PSI for each cylinder so I want to make sure they are comparable.
Incidentally, using the above math, the cylinders had 1.1%, 0.0%, 2.9%, 0.6%, 2.4%, and 0.0% leakage, respectively. The engine has 15k miles and it is a honda J35Z8 V6. Is this a plausible or likely result?

It basically indicates that you can use any test PSI under 100 and looking at the table it appears that the leakage is calculated as the difference between the gauges divided by the test PSI. But I can imagine that if you have a pretty low test PSI, the impact of the tool orifice vs the opening(s) in the cylinder is going to change. Like, a shake straw doesn't restrict your blowing if you're not blowing that hard.
Do the right and left gauges scale linearly for any given amount of ring gap, for instance?
The reason I'm asking is that the leak down test the dealer tech did on the car we are looking at had a different test PSI for each cylinder so I want to make sure they are comparable.
Incidentally, using the above math, the cylinders had 1.1%, 0.0%, 2.9%, 0.6%, 2.4%, and 0.0% leakage, respectively. The engine has 15k miles and it is a honda J35Z8 V6. Is this a plausible or likely result?